YHWH

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Although God has many names that reflect His majesty, position, power and authority, the four Hebrew letters that correspond to “YHWH” are the most common portion of His name in the Hebrew Scriptures. These four English letters are transliterated from a Hebrew word (Strong’s Hebrew #3068). Sometimes it is transliterated as JHVH or YHVH, but the most common is YHWH. This name occurs thousands of times in the writings of the Old Testament.

The Bible translators used the English the word “LORD” (with the “-ORD” in smaller-sized capital letters) almost every time that YHWH appears. The word lord in lowercase is used when references are made to a mere man, and usually it is translated from other Hebrew words.

Some “sacred names” groups insist on certain pronunciations and English spellings for this Hebrew name of God. Some insist on using Yahweh. Some insist that the correct name is Jehovah. Biblical scholars will tell us that since Hebrew writing had no vowels, the correct pronunciation of this name has been lost. Many Jews have such reverence for God’s name that they will not even try to pronounce it. In the Septuagint, the Hebrew letters “YHWH” were translated as the Greek word “Kurios.”

God introduces Himself

Although God worked on a personal level with many of His chosen followers in the Old Testament, it seems there were periods of time when the relationship was tenuous and somewhat limited. That was made clear when, at the time of Noah, only one man and his family were judged worthy to survive the flood that YHWH orchestrated for the destruction of almost all of mankind. Only eight survived.

Many decades later, God was well known to Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph and others. Moses appeared about 400 years after Joseph and the relationship between God and man was again strengthened. It is clear that Moses did not know God’s name or who God really was at the start of the work God had prepared him for.

Exodus 3:13-14 records Moses’ question to God. He asked, “‘When I come to the children of Israel and say to them, “The God of your fathers has sent me to you,” and they say to me, “What is His name?” what shall I say to them?’ And God said to Moses, ‘I AM WHO I AM.’ And He said, ‘Thus you shall say to the children of Israel, “I AM has sent me to you.”’”

In verses 15 and 16 God refers to Himself as “the LORD God of your fathers.” The name “I AM” is related to the personal name for God in the Old Testament. “‘I AM’ and the related YHWH are the names of God that infer absolute timeless self-existence. Although impossible to translate accurately and directly into English, YHWH conveys meanings of ‘The Eternal One,’ ‘The One Who Always Exists’ or: ‘The One Who Was, Is and Always Will Be’” (see our booklet Jesus Christ: The Real Story, p. 8).

Isaiah was inspired to record a direct statement from God about His name. “I am the LORD, that is My name; and My glory I will not give to another” (Isaiah 42:8). Putting in the Hebrew word, this reads: “I am YHWH, that is My name.” The reason the Jews wanted to stone Jesus was because He said He was the “I AM” (John 8:58)—which the hearers related to the YHWH that Israel knew and the Jews considered his statement to be blasphemy.

The name of God gives meaning to all that He is. God knows that He and only He is God, the Almighty and therefore everything becomes His responsibility. He consistently works within that realm as He interacts with the human race. Even those specially chosen by Him are dealt with from the position of His love and mercy as a Father and Creator and His justice and responsibility to maintain the order He has decreed in all of His creation.

God explains, “For My name’s sake I will defer My anger, and for My praise I will restrain it from you… For My own sake, for My own sake, I will do it; for how should My name be profaned? And I will not give My glory to another” (Isaiah 48:9-11).

God is what His name declares Him to be, and nothing can change that. It declared the way that God thinks and operates in all things. In verse 12, He declares, “I am He, I am the First, I am also the Last.”

Who was the YHWH of the Old Testament?

The YHWH of the Old Testament who interacted with mankind was not God the Father, although God the Father was always involved and present in the Word (John 17:21). Jesus Christ clearly said that no person had ever seen God the Father and nobody had heard His voice (John 5:37). Yet, Jacob declared that he saw God “face to face” (Genesis 32:30). Jacob had asked for His name, but it was not given, apparently (verse 29).

Note that in the Ten Commandments Moses recorded, “For I, [YHWH] your God” (Exodus 20:5). We also know that Moses was blessed and strengthened for his work with Israel when God allowed Moses to have a short glimpse of His glory. The story is found in Exodus 33:18-23. Moses was allowed to see God’s back, but not His face. God said He talked with Moses “face to face” (Exodus 33:11), but we realize God’s full power was turned way down. What an awesome thing to contemplate! No doubt God had to do something to make Himself visible to the limitations of Moses’ eyesight. Moses was satisfied by what he saw.

Who did Moses see? It was YHWH; God. John 1:18 tells us that no man has ever seen God the Father. Thus we know it was not the Father, but the Word (John 1:1-4).

The Father was not revealed to ancient Israel, but He was always there. Jesus said He would tell us plainly about the Father (John 16:25), but His plain talk was still often confusing because of the inner barriers we (and the disciples) have.

In John 17:5, Jesus made a profound statement. He asked God the Father in prayer to “glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.” John also wrote that when Jesus was asked to reveal the Father, He didn’t hesitate to say that if a person has seen Him, he has seen the Father (John 14:9).

Putting all of this and many more biblical accounts together, it is clear that the Word that became Jesus Christ the man was the YHWH men knew in the Old Testament (John 1:1, 14). It seems that awesome fact was not fully realized or known until His resurrection. The Bible says that if those who put Jesus to death had known who He was, they would never have killed Him (1 Corinthians 2:8). This understanding only adds to the precious blood that was shed for our reconciliation with God.

One further point to ponder—Jesus said He would have a new name (Revelation 3:12). Then we will know the name of God and the new name of the Word. Until then, let us be satisfied with that which God has revealed. It is enough.

Further reading

For more about God’s name, see our Frequently Asked Question: “What is the correct name for God? Is there a special sacred name God wants us to use?”

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Comments

  • KARS

    One other thing Mr. Leger, remember Jesus is our mediator and is seating at the right hand of God/ Our Father. Remember? So, when we are praying to our Father; who is the one mediating for us?

  • Robert Berendt

    There is much we do not understand, but will one day. How to grasp the incredible event of the Word becoming flesh and the only begotten of the Father and begotten Son - is not totally clear (John 1:3,14,18). Jesus did not become begotten or the Son of God until Mary conceived and gave birth. He was divine and human in order to complete the work God was doing for mankind. He was the first human resurrected to eternal life - and there was a change that took place that we do not fully grasp. We can only read the words and marvel at the majesty of the Almighty. As the firstborn Son of many children, Christ is subject only to the Father (I Cor. 15:28) and all other children will be subject under Christ. That statement is made about the resurrected Son of God. Some statements we can only marvel about and glorify the brilliance and love of God.

  • jlnow

    If Jesus is YHVH, and yet the UCG teaches the scriptural truth that Jesus is subordinate to the Father, how is that possible? If Jesus is YHVH, then it was Jesus speaking at Gen 1:17 when he said...

    "When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD (YHVH) appeared to him and said, "I am God Almighty (El Shaddai); walk before me faithfully and be blameless."

    If Jesus is YHVH, and he claimed to be El Shaddai (God Almighty) how is he subordinate to the Father?

  • Depenney

    Both God the Father and Jesus are Almighty. Being God means you are mighty in all things. Jesus said no man has seen God the Father at anytime, therefore this appearance had to be Jesus prior to his becoming the Son of GOD. Since Jesus when on earth said he served God the Father, therefore He is next in line to God the Father.

  • Johnny Hess

    On a level I grasp easily: in marriage the 2 are 1 yet there is the authority of the husband which naturally (spiritually) is the higher of the 2. Outside of the marriage the children are subordinate to both parents hopefully to the extent where the one's word is just as the others. It is awesome to contemplate the degree of oneness God has. When an understanding wife and husband have the true model and together live that out and God guided use of the authority and obedience is demonstrated it becomes clear that the subordination between the YHWH who came amongst us and the YHWH yet to be revealed is perfect and it's also what They want and have and will continue to have.

  • KARS

    Hi Mr. LEGER! MR. BERENDT mentioned John 1:1-4. Jesus the Word who is God and was God before be was born a human. Was with God whom Jesus told us to call him Father in the Lord's Prayer in the Book of Matthew. These 2 Gods are like minded in what they do. The Word was chosen Spokesmen, Creator, High Priest, Savior of humanity, Lamb of God, and King. The power Jesus Christ used to perform miracles came from God our Father above. Jesus came to do the Father's will. The God of Mount Sinai was the Word.Kathy's

  • jlnow

    Thank you for replying Kathy, but none of what you said addressed my question. If Jesus is YHVH, then (according to Gen 17:1) he must also be God Almighty (El Shaddai). But if Jesus is God Almighty then he cannot be subordinate to the Father.

    To be clear: I do not believe in the Trinity. The scriptures clearly teach that Jesus is subordinate to the Father. I'm not convinced, however, that Jesus is YHVH due to the above.

    Also, consider Matthew 6:6: "But when you pray, go into your room, close the door and pray to your Father, who is unseen. Then your Father, who sees what is done in secret, will reward you."

    Jesus instructs us to pray to the Father. But in the Old Testament YHVH receives all prayer. If Jesus is YHVH, why didn't he instruct us to 'go into our room and pray to ME (Jesus)'?

    Thanks in advance for your response.

  • Skip Miller

    Hello JLL,
    I'm not Kathy but I wanted to ask a question about Time (eternal and otherwise.)
    Is it possible that at one time, the two God Beings were completely equal?
    Then one of Them humbled Himself and became the Son, at His human birth.
    From that point on He became subordinate to the Father (as the New Testament seems to indicate.) Would that clear up certain questions without radically altering doctrine?
    I like what Mr. Berendt said,"There is much we do not understand..."
    We only need to see the basics, unless we are attempting to be Augustinian theologians.

  • jlnow

    If that were true, it would clear things up, but the scriptures show that not to be the case:

    "And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began." (John 17:5, NIV)

    Jesus asked to be restored to the same glory he had before, not to a lesser glory.

  • kathysanny

    I do not follow your reasoning. Why would his glory be less because he humbled himself? We have to pray in His name. He took on a different role as our mediator. When we take a job we subject ourselves to our manager-that does not make us less of a person. When a woman marries she gives up her autonomy and agrees to have her husband be the head of the family. That does not make her less than what she was before. I am not grasping your point-do you feel there is no God the Father and also God the Son? Do you not see that Elohim was plural when they said let us make man after our image and our likeness? How do you explain John 1? The scriptures indicate that God sees humility as raising someone to a higher level. Our thoughts are not His thoughts.

  • KARS

    Hi Mr. Leger, Jesus is God Almighty the great I AM. God our Father is the Ancient of Days. If you read Genesis 1: 26 you will see it says the word "Us" meaning that there are 2 or more. John 1:1-4 was mentioned to explain that there are 2 God beings. Read John1:1-4 and it just might make more sense. Jesus explains about the Father in the Book of John Chapter 5:19-27. Read this also and this may help.

  • jlnow

    I'm sorry Kathy, but either you're missing my point or you're not reading what I'm writing.

    I know Jesus is "Mighty God" (Isaiah 9:6) and "God" (John 1:1) and "the express image of his person" (Heb 1:3, NIV). That's not in question here. So I know Jesus was part of the "us" referred to in Genesis 1:26.

    What I'm saying is, again, IF Jesus is YHVH then he is El Shaddai (God Almighty). And IF he's El Shaddai (God Almighty) then he cannot be subordinate to the Father as stated in the UCG article. And again, why did Jesus instructed his followers to pray to the Father in Matthew rather than instructing his followers to pray to him (Jesus). If Jesus is YHVH, and YHVH received prayer in the Old Testament, why not instruct people to continue praying to him (Jesus) instead of the Father?

    I appreciate you trying to be helpful, but please attempt to answer the questions I'm asking rather than pointing elsewhere.

    Thanks in advance.

  • KARS

    Alright J L L! sub·or·di·nate
    ADJECTIVE :lower in rank or position:
    "his subordinate officers" synonyms: lower-ranking · junior · lower · supporting
    NOUN a person under the authority or control of another within an organization.
    synonyms: junior · assistant · second (in command) · number two · [more]
    VERB treat or regard as of lesser importance than something else:
    "practical considerations were subordinated to political expediency"
    OK. Now! Of course there has to be one totally in charge of all things. Did not Our Father say that Jesus His Only Begotten Son sits at his right hand? He had to be sitting there all along; in authority with our Eternal God. The Eternal God gave the Word/ logos (Strong's Greek 3056)/ Jesus the God of the O. T. authority to create the angels first, 2nd the universe, 3rd all living flora, & fawna, land and water creatures, and last of all man. Of course Jesus had his own glory apart from Eternal God our Father. And because the LAW/ Torah doesn't tell us how they prayed before the flood because the Lord's presence was here during that time. He spoke with Cain, Enoch, & Noah. We are instructed to pray to the Father in the name of Jesus Chirist.

  • KARS

    Hi JLL! I figured out what the problem is, I don't know what the word subordinate means. I need the dictionary definition. By the Bible I understand that there are 2 God beings with one of them in charge at all times. I don't know His name before Jesus/Word/YHVH told us to call the leading God Being, Father. From what I've read, the Word/YHVH (according to a Strong's Concordance) was chosen to create the angels, the universe (which includes the earth), proceeded by birds with animals in the sea, then land creatures, then in the Lord's grand finale of creation, Adam then Eve. Since Jesus is king and the earth is his inheritance, wouldn't that make the first God Being king as well? With the first God Being giving full authority to Jesus/YHVH over this planet earth JLL?

  • jlnow

    I appreciate you trying to be helpful Kathy, I really do. But you're not answering my question. The scriptures clearly show Jesus is subordinate to the Father. And, as you clearly showed, that means he's lesser in authority than the Father. Since that is the case, he _cannot_ be El Shaddai (Almighty God), because the very fact that he is "Almighty" would mean he's not subordinate (lesser in authority) to _anybody_.

    And again, there's the fact that Jesus told us to pray to the Father, where as YHVH had no problem accepting prayer in the Hebrew Scriptures. If Jesus was YHVH and El Shaddai he would not have told us to pray to somebody else (the Father), but rather would have instructed us to pray to him (Jesus).

  • KARS

    OK J L L. I have read the O.T. 2 times already and on a 3rd time. What I found is both God (Jn 1:1-4) and the Word/Logos/YHWH/Jehovah/ I AM, etc (for He has many names) are mentioned in the Book of Genesis. As one reads on we find that the people have been worshipping I AM. They worship Him first with the Tabernacle in the Wilderness, then Solomon's Temple. When we read the Book of Psalms the songs are written and sung to the Great I AM/ YHWH. Later on in the New Covenant with the Word/ I AM who becomes Jesus Christ our Lord, he instructs us to now pray to our Father as you stated above in your pervious posts. The Jews do not mention the Eternal God's name because it's very sacred to them. Before the Word/YHWH was born, the Eternal God wasn't called Father. I haven't found it in the O.T.. Jesus gives Him the name Abba/Father . Because they have been together for eternity, they have a oneness of belief, understanding, co-operation, and they both confide in each other for what they both want to do with their creations. Their government, laws and statues; they both live and agree upon. The Eternal God made the decisions and YHWH agreed to the terms and conditions. JC/Savior.

  • jclassboat
    YHWH aka Yahweh, the God of the old testament interacted with a chosen group of people (Israelite s) and witnessed their self inflicted travails as they drew near Yahweh and repeatedly fell away. Yahweh became the prophesied Lamb of God, Yahshua which is (Yah saves), God the Father's Son, perfect, and blameless, who redeemed human kind from eternal damnation through his crucifixion. According to the online study tool Blue Letter Bible, the name Yahweh (spelled YHWH in Hebrew) appears 6,519 times in the Old Testament. It is used more than any other name of God. Jews were too afraid they would use his sacred name in vain so they deliberately substituted LORD in its place. In my opinion, based on scriptures, YHWH wants us to glorify his name and substituting a common title of LORD is not what YHWH finds acceptable. So using LORD or other man made substitutions falls in line with corrupting the Word of YHWH with Man made traditions.
  • jlnow

    I agree with this. Exodus 3:15(ASV) says:

    "And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Jehovah, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name forever, and this is my memorial unto all generations."

    That certainly doesn't sound like YHVH (Jehovah in the ASV) isn't import for us to use. The scripture clearly says that it's his" memorial" (a thing by which he is to be remembered) "unto all generations" (not just until Messiah comes).

  • H.G. Hennis

    QatPhils,

    In response to your second question, Jesus Christ said, "He who has seen Me has seen the Father..." (John 14:9), and just as “Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today, and forever” (Hebrews 13:8), so the LORD God of the Old Testament is also consistent and does “not change” (Malachi 3:6) like a “shifting shadow” (James 1:17, NASB). He is a God of love (1 John 4:8), and as He truthfully said when He appeared to Moses, the LORD God of the Old Testament was “…merciful and gracious, longsuffering, and abounding in goodness and truth, keeping mercy for thousands, forgiving iniquity and transgression and sin…” (Exodus 34:6-7; compare Psalm 78:38; Jonah 4:2, etc.), but He also corrects those who need to repent (Revelation 3:19; Hebrews 12:6,11; Exodus 20:5-6).

    As this article points out, and as Jesus Himself confirms in John 8:58, Jesus as the Word/Spokesman of John 1:1 was also the LORD (YHVH) who referred to Himself as the “I AM” that spoke to Moses in Exodus 3:14-15. Paul also confirms that Christ was the Rock of Israel in the days of Moses (1 Corinthians 10:2-4). In Philippians 2:10-11, Paul also connects Jesus Christ with the LORD (YHVH) of Isaiah 45:23, 21-25. Although Jesus Christ is extremely loving (Romans 5:7-8, etc.), His return will include righteousness/justice as “He judges and makes war” (Revelation 19:11-13; compare 17:14; 6:15-17).

    The principle of “a little leaven leavens the whole lump” (1Corinthians 5:6) is applicable to God asking OT Israel to rid the Promised Land of peoples who would corrupt and/or torment them in the future if allowed to remain there (Deuteronomy 12:29-31; Exodus 34:11-16, etc.). Like a root of bitterness or a sin that is not 100% repented of, such a sin has the potential of growing into a greater sin and defiling many (Romans 6:19a, Hebrews 12:15). Among those whom the Israelites killed during the days of Moses was "Balaam the son of Beor, the soothsayer..." (Joshua 13:22; Numbers 31:8) "...who taught Balak to put a stumbling block before the children of Israel, to eat things sacrificed to idols, and to commit sexual immorality" (Revelation 2:14; compare Numbers 31:16). Generations later, after King Saul failed to obey God with regard to the blood-thirsty Amalekites (1Samuel 15) who were violent descendants of Esau/Edom (Genesis 36:12, Amos 1:11), an apparent long-term physical consequence included the rise of one of Agag’s descendants, Haman, who attempted to annihilate all Jews in the Persian Empire (Esther 9:24).

    In the case of Joshua 11:20 (which you quoted) and similar verses, a similar thing is said about Pharaoh's heart being hardened by the LORD (i.e., Exodus 7:3). In that account it also makes it obvious that Pharaoh's own sinful nature contributed to his willing choices to harden his own heart as well (i.e., Exodus 8:13, 8:32, 9:34, etc.). In the preceding chapters of Joshua, one of the many pagan peoples mentioned are the Amorites (some of whom are also mentioned in Joshua 11:3). In Genesis 15:16, it is written that "...the sin of the Amorites ha[d] not yet reached its full measure" (NIV) at that time, but by the time of Joshua it had. "And it happened, as they fled before Israel... that the LORD cast down large hailstones from heaven on them... [and] ...there were more who died from the hailstones than the children of Israel killed with the sword" (Joshua 10:11). In the first chapter of Judges, before Adoni-Bezek dies, he realizes, "...as I have done, so God has repaid me" (Judges 1:7). This is similar to the New Testament principle of "...whatever a man sows, that he will also reap" (Galatians 6:7), and "...with the measure you use, it will be measured back to you" (Matthew 7:2).

    With Egypt, YHVH showed His power over Pharaoh and all the false "gods" of the Egyptians, and thereby exalted His name (see Romans 9:17; compare Joshua 2:10-11; 9:9-10; Isaiah 46:9,1-2,6-7). Among those defeated in the verses right after the one you quoted were the much-feared giant Anakim that ten of the Israelite spies had previously thought they couldn't defeat (Joshua 11:21-22, compare Deuteronomy 9:1-5; Numbers 13:31-33, etc.). In addition to YHVH showing His power over human giants and false "gods" of the land, Deuteronomy 9:4-5 makes it clear that it was "...because of the wickedness of these nations that the LORD your God drives them out from before you, and that He may fulfill the word which the LORD swore to your fathers, to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob."

    Since "all have sinned" (Romans 3:23) and "the wages of sin is death" (Romans 6:23), and the sins and abominations of peoples in the Promised Land were great, the Creator God was not treating them unjustly by fighting for His chosen nation Israel and putting their enemies to death. In this physical life, God decides at what time and upon whom He will have mercy, or whom He will leave hardened in their own sinful nature for the time being (Romans 9:14-18). However, in the long-run, Romans 11:32-33 would seem to indicate that "...God has committed them all to disobedience, that He might have mercy on all...;" or, as a principle from Hosea 2:23 and 1 Peter 2:10 demonstrates, people who previously had not received mercy, will receive mercy.

    Since it is God’s loving desire that as many as possible should come to repentance and receive salvation (2Peter 3:9; 1Timothy 2:3-4; John 3:16-17), He chooses the best timing (with the greatest opportunity for success) for each individual to be called and given His Spirit (John 6:65, Acts 2:39,38; Acts 5:32). Those who have died physically without ever having really known the true God (YHVH) of the Bible, will be given their first chance at deep spiritual repentance and walking in obedience to God’s way of life with the assistance of His Spirit in the second resurrection (Ezekiel 37:13-14; 36:26-27; Revelation 20:5a, etc.). Those people who, after having full opportunity to receive the Holy Spirit, still willfully choose satan’s destructive ways to the point of no longer being able to repent (Hebrews 6:4-6; 10:26-27), will be mercifully put out of their misery forever by means of the “second death” (Revelation 21:8), and there will not be anything left that is able to hurt, destroy, or cause pain or sorrow (Revelation 21:4; Isaiah 11:9).

    I hope that helps answer your question a little. If not, perhaps the principle from Romans 11:32-33 sums it up well: "For God has committed them all to disobedience, that He might have mercy on all. Oh, the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are His judgments and His ways past finding out!"

  • H.G. Hennis

    QatPhils,

    You asked what Exodus 33:20 means since other people in the Bible saw God (the Word, compare John 1:1, 5:37) in some capacity. A *major* distinction here is that Moses was allowed to see part of God is His *GLORIFIED* form, a state in which His face is too overwhelming for our feeble physical bodies to handle.

    Earlier in the same chapter (Exodus 33:9-11), it is clear that Moses had already spoken with God directly while God’s appearance was shielded by a pillar of cloud (compare the dark clouds of Deuteronomy 4:11-12, 2Samuel 22:12-14, etc.)

    In Exodus 33:18 Moses makes a special request of God to, “Please, show me Your glory.” In 33:19, God replied, “I will make all My goodness pass before you…” But “You cannot see My face, for no man shall see Me and live” (33:20). Continuing in 33:22-23 YHVH says,"So it shall be, while My glory passes by, that I will put you in the cleft of the rock, and will cover you with My hand while I pass by. Then I will take away My hand, and you shall see My back; but My face shall not be seen." Even the limited part of YHVH that Moses was allowed to see caused the skin of Moses' human face to shine in a way that made Aaron and the children of Israel afraid (Exodus 34:29-35).

    In the vision of Revelation 1:13-17, the Word Jesus Christ’s glorified appearance included a countenance which was far greater than that. It was described as being “…like the sun shining in its strength,” and in the vision of Matthew 17:9,2, “…His face shone like the sun.”

    By comparison, no human can even look *directly* at the physical sun (without some method of eye-shielding) for an extended period of time without going physically blind. Furthermore, although there have been manned missions to the moon, no unprotected human body could ever survive a trip to the surface of the sun.

    When the LORD Jesus Christ returns in all His glory and stands on the Mount of Olives (Zechariah 14:4; compare Acts 1:11-12; Revelation 19:11-13) and unbelievers try to fight against Him, it is written that “…Their flesh shall dissolve while they stand on their feet, their eyes shall dissolve in their sockets, and their tongues shall dissolve in their mouths” (Zechariah 14:12). But of those faithful believers that have their mortal human bodies changed into spiritual bodies at the return of Christ (1Corinthians 15:50-54, compare 1Thessalonians 4:15-17), they shall be able to “see Him as He is” (1John 3:2) without dying (compare Luke 20:36).

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